Language in use | English
Language & Linguistics |
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English - What A Language The following short essay has circulated around the Internet. It points out apparently illogical aspects of English. However many of these examples are caused by a process of change in language, which has developed organically over thousands of years, and any expectation that there should be logic behind our grammar or our vocabulary is likely to be dashed. For example we can joke that a fork has four prongs so a fork with three prongs should be called threek. However that would assume that "fork" means "item of cutlery defined by having four tines" whereas in fact "fork" originally described a forked stake, as a branch forks off the main tree or a road splits from another creating a fork. The number of prongs is irrelevant and the earliest definition includes only two. It is not at all related to the number four. Similarly the Turkey has no relationship with the popultry of the same name. It was an early error to say that it came from that country. After reading the piece below reflect on the examples given and comment on whether they are really as illogical as the writer suggests. Is the writer making illogical connections - for example saying there is a connection of meaning between two words simply because there is a similarity in sound, or suggesting there should be uniformity of past tense because two words appear similar in the present tense? Find other examples of apparent paradox in English and explain these too.
After you have studied the passage and completed the task, is English, in your view, as illogical as the writer claims? Do his arguments stand up to scrutiny?
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